Answer: The correct answer is: "yes" .
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Step-by-step explanation:
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First:
Consider the fraction:
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" [tex]\frac{(39.68)}{(60.14)}[/tex] " ; Using a calculator: " [tex]\frac{(39.68)}{(60.14)}[/tex] = [tex](39.68[/tex] ÷ [tex]60.14)[/tex] [tex]= 0.65979381443[/tex] " .
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Second:
Consider the fraction:
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" [tex]\frac{(6.4)}{(9.7)}[/tex] " ; Using a calculator: " [tex]\frac{(6.4)}{(9.7)}[/tex] [tex]= (6.4[/tex] ÷ [tex]9.7) = 0.65979381443[/tex] " .
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→ " [tex]65979381443[/tex] ≟ [tex]65979381443[/tex] " ? Yes!
→ " [tex]65979381443[/tex] = [tex]65979381443[/tex] " !
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Thus:
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→ " [tex]\frac{(39.68)}{(60.14)}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{(6.4)}{(9.7)}[/tex] " ; Yes; these fractions are equivalent.
→ The correct answer is: "yes" .
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Hope this is helpful to you!
Best wishes!
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